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It's always the husband, right? Or is it? I mean, you know the trope just as well as I do.
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A woman tells her husband that she wants a divorce. She goes out that night, and
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then she vanishes. The husband says and does quite a few things that raise eyebrows. Everyone around him is
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convinced of his guilt, and the case stays unsolved. But if it really was that obvious, why couldn't police ever
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prove it decades later? The night that Bonnie Lee Shults disappeared, her coworker says
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that Bonnie showed up visibly upset, like she'd been crying. So Anita like takes her into the bathroom, and there
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Bonnie told her that she had just told her husband Rick that she wanted a divorce, and allegedly he said no.
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Now, when Rick later called Bonnie's friend Diane to say that Bonnie was missing, Diane didn't hesitate. Her
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first thought was more or less like, "You did something to her." But Rick had an alibi. He was home with
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his daughter all night. He had nothing to gain, not money, no affair. He never even remarried.
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So what if this case only feels obvious because we've been taught to expect the easy answer?
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When a story fits a trope perfectly, does that make it true? Or is it possible that it makes it easier for
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people, including investigators, just to avoid exploring other alternatives?